Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2012 Paper 2-Practice Paper

Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.


The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the conventionality,artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic;  of classical studies, but they were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the humanists thought that the study of the classical  authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of mediaeval scholasticism. The professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almostmanaged to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil’s Aeneid. The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child something about the actual universe in which he is  living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the same time teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of the community who have been through a secondary or public school education may be expected to know something about the elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but they  probably know hardly more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours. As to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience of teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do not learn scientific method but learn precisely  the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or  not. The way in which educated people respond to such quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency myths, shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in Britain or Germany has  produced no visible effect whatever. The only way of learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal experience, and, until the educational or social systems are altered  to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a minority of people who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority who are able to use and develop them.
1. The author implies that the ‘professional schoolmaster’ (line 7) has
A. no interest in teaching science
B. thwarted attempts to enliven education
C. aided true learning
D. supported the humanists

2. The author’s attitude to secondary and public school education in the sciences is
A. ambivalent
B. neutral
C. supportive
D. contemptuous

3. The word ‘palpably’ (line 24) most nearly means
A. empirically
B. obviously
C. tentatively
D. markedly

4. The author blames all of the following for the failure to impart scientific method through the education system except
A. poor teaching
B. examination methods
C. lack of direct experience
D. lack of interest on the part of students

5. If the author were to study current education in science to see how things have changed since he wrote the piece, he would probably be most interested in the answer to which of the following questions?
A. Do students know more about the world about them?
B. Do students spend more time in laboratories?
C. Can students apply their knowledge logically?
D. Have textbooks improved?

6. Astrology (line 31) is mentioned as an example of
A. a science that needs to be better understood
B. a belief which no educated people hold
C. something unsupportable to those who have absorbed the methods of science
D. the gravest danger to society

7. All of the following can be inferred from the text except
A. at the time of writing, not all children received a secondary school education
B. the author finds chemical reactions interesting
C. science teaching has imparted some knowledge of facts to some children
D. it is relatively easy to learn scientific method.

Passage II

The announcement that Donna had reached middle age came stealthily and without warning. Donna, at 42 years old, was in perfect health. She was fit, trim, and ate only the healthiest of foods, eschewing soda and candy. She was still asked for her identification when buying wine at the grocery store. She ran several miles every day; in local road races, she was known for beating people half her age. “Forty is the new twenty!” her friends would say of Donna’s seeming agelessness. Donna heard the quip so often that a part of her believed that this aging thing was surely only for other people. That all changed during what should have been a fairly innocuous event: a trip to the Department of Motor Vehicles to renew her driver’s license. “Name?” the clerk asked, without looking up. Donna replied. “Address?”
Donna gave it to her. “Look through there, please,” The clerk gestured toward an eye-testing machine perched at the edge of the desk. “Read the first four lines,” she sighed. Donna pushed her head against the contraption. “Go ahead.” Donna was perplexed. Everything was fuzzy. “I think the glass is dirty,” Donna said, searching the desk for a tissue to wipe off the lens. “It’s not dirty,” the clerk said, her voice dripping with condescension. “There must be some problem,” Donna said, pressing her head against the machine once more. “Ma’am, do you wear glasses?” “No, no, I don’t,” Donna responded, a little embarrassed now, as other people in the room began turning to see what was going on. The clerk glanced down at Donna’s old license and back up at her. “Welcome to middle age, sweetheart. Come back when you’ve had an eye exam and gotten glasses.”
8. What proverb best fits this story?
A. Time marches on.
B. Time heals all wounds.
C. A stitch in time saves nine.
D. There is no time like the present.
9. As used at the beginning of the passage, which is the best antonym for stealthily?
A. secretly
B. patiently
C. blatantly
D. sneakily

10. As stated near the beginning of the story, if Donna is eschewing candy and soda, she is
A. overindulging in them
B. avoiding them
C. eating them in moderation
D. eating them responsibly
11. Using the passage as a guide, which best describes the meaning of “Forty is the new twenty”?
A. If you are in good shape and health, being 40 can feel like 20.
B. When people turn 40, they are likely to say they are in their 20s.
C. If you are 20 and are not in great shape, you can feel like you are 40.
D. If you stay away from junk food, you can look 40 even when you are 20.

12. As used in the middle of the passage, which is the best antonym for innocuous?
A. dangerous
B. difficult
C. juvenile
D. mature

13. What is the difference between the first four paragraphs and the rest of the passage?
A. The first four paragraphs portray Donna’s pride while the rest of the passage displays her frustration.
B. The first four paragraphs highlight the good life Donna has had while the rest of the passage shows her regret.
C. The first four paragraphs emphasize Donna’s youth while the rest of the passage shows that she has aged.
D. The first four paragraphs outline Donna’s fitness while the rest of the passage shows she is out of shape.

14. Which best describes the clerk’s attitude?
A. hostile
B. incoherent
C. patronizing
D. domineering
15. As the word is used at the end of the story, which of the following statements suggest condescension?
I. Peter is a bright student, he simply does not apply himself.
II. Ingrid is not invited to the party; she has no sense of style.
III. Cindy’s not too dumb, for a sixth grader.
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III
16. The tone of the passage is best described as
A. wry
B. dark
C. lighthearted
D. passionate
17. What is ironic about the clerk calling Donna “ma’am”?
A. It is not proper English.
B. The clerk does not know Donna’s name.
C. It is a term often reserved for older people.
D. It is unclear to whom the clerk is speaking.

18. Substracting 48% of N from N is equivalent to multiplying N by

(a) 0.48     (b) 1.48    (c) 0.52     (d) 0.42

19. Tipu’s salary has increased from Rs 7200 to Rs 8100. What is the percentage increase in Tipu’s salary?

(a) 33.33%     (b) 25%    (c) 16.66%     (d) 12.5%

20. 42% of a number is subtracted from 61% of itself and the resulting value is 38. What is the number?

(a) 100         (b) 250    (c) 200         (d) 300

21. The length of a rectangle is increased by 30% and the breadth is decreased by 25%. What is the percentage change in the area of the rectangle due to this?

(a) 2.5% increase     (b) 25% decrease    (c) 25% increase     (d) 2.5% decrease

22. If a value is increased twice successively by 20% then what is the net percentage increase in the value?

(a) 20         (b) 40        (c) 21         (d) 44

23. 10 liters of water is added to 50 liters of solution containing 20% of milk in water. What is the concentration of milk in the solution now?

(a) 20%    (b) 16.66%        (c) 12.5%         (d) 33.33%

24. A man spends 25% of money on food. After spending 50% of the remaining, he is left with Rs 375. How much money was with that man initially?

(a) 5000     (b) 4000    (c) 5800     (d) 1000

25. A man spends 60% of his income. His income increases by 40% and due to this he also increases his expenditure by 40%. Find the percentage increase in his saving?

(a) 30%     (b) 4%        (c) 4.44%     (d) None of these

26. There are 50 successive percentage discounts given in a series of 2%, 4%, 6%, 8%… and so on. What is the net discount?

(a)98%         (b)2550%    (c) 100%     (d) Infinite

Directions for questions 10-11: Read the passage below and solve the questions based on it.
All students of class X took the pre-board test. One third of the class received B, one fourth received B+, one sixth received  B- and one eight of the class failed (grade C). Everyone else got A.

27. What can be the minimum number of students in class X?

(a)8         (b)48        (c) 24          (d) Cannot be determined.

28. How many students in class X got A?

(a)3         (b)6        (c) 4         (d) Cannot be determined

29. If 75% of a class of 40 students can sing and only 20% cannot dance, the maximum number of students who can neither sing nor dance is

(a)0         (b)6        (c) 18         (d) Cannot be determined

30. 60% of the students of a class are boys and in an examination 80% of the girls scored more than 40 marks ( out of a maximum possible 150 marks) If 60% of total students scored more than 40 marks in the same examination, find the fraction of  boys who scored 40 marks or less.

(a)8/15         (b)7/15    (c) 4/5          (d) 1/5

31. A thousand people voted on a resolution with 10% of the votes being invalid. After some discussion 1000 people voted again. This time there were 20% invalid votes. The opponents were increased by 50% while the motion was now rejected by a majority, which is 300% more than it was formerly passed by. How many people voted against the resolution after the discussion?

(a)400         (b)200        (c) 300      (d) 500

32. An index of 12 shares contains among others the shares of Reliance, HLL, and Infosys with the weightage of 7%, 13%, and 15% respectively. What is the increase in the price of other shares if these three rise by 9%, 10% and 4% respectively while the index rises by 6%?

(a)5.34%     (b)4.91%        (c4.58%      (d) Cannot be determined

33. The population of town A and B is in the ratio of 1:4. For the next two years the population of A would increase and that of B would decrease by the same percentage every year. After 2years their population became equal. What is the percentage change in the population?

(a)33.33%     (b)66.66%    (c) 25%      (d)Not Possible

34. If profit as a percentage of selling price is 25%, then what is the profit as a percentage of cost price?

(a)25%         (b)33.33%        (c) 20%      (d) 15%

35. A man sold an article at a profit of 10%. If he had charged Rs 45 more his profit percentage would have been 25%. What is the cost price?

(a)Rs 200     (b) Rs 300    (c) Rs 250      (d) None of these

36. The owner of Book point does not get either profit or loss by selling 15 books for Rs 225. How many books should he sell for the same amount to gain 25% profit?

(a) 10         (b)11        (c) 12          (d) 13

37. CP of 12 apples is equal to SP of 9 apples and the discount on 10 apples is equal to the profit on 5 apples. What is the percentage difference between CP and SP of apples?

(a)20%         (b)25%    (c) 16.66%      (d) None of these

38. A shopkeeper professes to sell his articles for CP but gives only 800gm instead of 1000gm. What is his profit percentage?

(a)20%         (b)25%        (c) 16.66%         (d)33.33%

39. Amar sold a motor to Bharat at 20% profit and Bharat sold it to Siridhar at 10% profit. Sridhar sold the same to a mechanic and received Rs 2316. If Amar had sold the same motor to the mechanic and receive the same amount the mechanic paid to Sridhar , what profit percentage Amar would have made?

(a)52%         (b)48%    (c) 33.33%     (d) Can not be determined.

40. Mahesh and Ramesh purchased a radio each for the same price and both marked up their respective radios by the same amount. Mahesh gave a discount of Rs 20 followed by another discount of 20% on the reduced price, while Umesh gave a discount of 20% followed by a discount of Rs 20. If Mahesh’s profit percentage is equal to thrice of Umesh’s loss percentage, what is the profit of Mahesh on his radio?

(a)Rs 2         (b)Rs 3        (c) Rs 4         (d) Rs 5

41. Shadab is a very shrewd shop owner. He adjusted his electronic weighing scale in a typical way. Error percentage of his scale is directly proportional to the displayed weight of the commodity. But he gives a discount of 10% in every transaction. His weighing scale shows 5kg for 4kg. What is the actual profit percentage when the displayed weight is 10kg?

(a)35%         (b)30%        (c) -5%      (d) 50%

42. The cost price of dozen mangoes is equal to the selling price of 10 mangoes. The selling price of apples per piece is the cost price of a mango per piece. If the profit percentage made on selling an apple is half that of selling a mango, then what is the cost of an apple, if the selling price of one mango is Rs X?

(a)Rs X/6     (b)Rs 5X/6        (c) Rs 25X/33          (d) Rs 33X/25

The next ten questions are data interpretation questions and your answer should only reflect what is provided in the graphs.

The table above shows imports for three types of steel over a six month period. Use this information to answer the following questions.

43. Which month showed the largest decrease in total imports over the previous month?
A         B         C       D
Feb     Mar     Apr     May

44. What was the total value of sheet steel (in $) imported over the 6 month period?
A    B    C    D
56,750     75,300    55,550     42,370

45. What was the percentage of scrap steel imported in the 6 month period?
A    B    C    D
37.5    35.2    36.1      31.2

46. What was the difference (in thousands of tons) between coil steel and sheet steel imports in the first 3 months of the year?
A     B       C       D
10    16    18    20

47. What was the approximate ratio of sheet steel and coil steel imports in the first 3 months of the year?
A         B         C         D
11:9  8:9    7:11    3:8

The pie charts above show the percentage of students in each faculty at North West University and the number of non-US students in the Arts faculty. These percentages have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in the Arts faculty. Use this information to answer the following questions.

48. What percentage of students in the Arts faculty are non-US students?
A          B        C          D
14%    9%    30%    11%

49. How many students are there in the Engineering faculty?
A    B    C    D
420    410    390    440

50. How many students are there at the university?
A    B    C    D
4650    4560    4640    4450

51. If six percent of Science students are Asian. How many Asian students are there studying Science?
A    B    C    D
48    66    120    57

52.    There are 34 European medical students. What percentage of the faculty does this represent?
A    B    C    D
15%    18%    12%    16%

Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage III

“Leave it.” Kelsey could not begin to fathom what she was hearing. In fact, a part
of her began to feel she was in some sort of dream, unable to emerge to wakefulness. Even the contractor appeared flabbergasted. His mouth stayed in a half-open position, like a marionette waiting for its strings to be tugged. “Yes. Leave it,” Robert said again, speaking to the notion that someone in the room had asked him to clarify his words. No one had, but Robert understood the silence. What were the chances that an Indian burial ground would be found on the bucolic site where Robert and Kelsey had chosen to build their dream home? Why in the world would Robert not want to have the remains carted away, thought Kelsey. The last thing they needed were Indian poltergeists meandering around their home while the two of them were trying to renovate their marriage. Kelsey, usually deferential to her husband, knew that now was the time to make her position heard. She tried to cajole Robert away from the direction he was heading. “Sweetheart,” she cooed. “We don’t want to build on a site with human remains. It would be irreverent to the dead.” Immediately, she saw contempt in Robert’s eyes; it was a subtle reminder of how he often viewed her as superficial and self-absorbed. “What would be irreverent,” said Robert, his voice dripping with condescension, “would be to desecrate these Native graves and move them from their final resting place. Remember the culture.” No, Kelsey did not “remember the culture.” She could not care less about the culture. However, Robert, the history professor, was obviously enthralled by the contractor’s findings. He had an innate way of understanding other cultures and other people that amazed Kelsey. He did not have that gift with her. But something inside Kelsey said this was too much. She believed wholeheartedly in ghosts and could not imagine a life of them haunting her, rattling her cupboards, and shaking her floorboards. Kelsey had an unnerving sensation that problems were ahead.

53. Which of the following best explains how Kelsey feels at the beginning of the story?
A. unable to comprehend the current situation
B. unable to comprehend the decision of her husband
C. unaware of the problem at hand
D. unwilling to confront a potentially life-threatening ordeal
54. As used at the beginning of the story, which is the best synonym for flabbergasted?
A. dumbfounded
B. hostile
C. querulous
D. unimpressed

55. In paragraph 2, the author writes, “His mouth stayed in a half-open position, like a marionette waiting for its strings to be tugged.” Which of the following literary techniques is used in this quotation?
A. allusion, characterized by a casual reference to a literary or historical figure
B. simile, characterized by a comparison between two unlike things using “like” or “as”
C. denotation, characterized by the usage of the literal definition of a word
D. hyperbole, characterized by a gross exaggeration

56. The title of this passage makes use of which literary device?
A. a pun, where one word has two meanings that are both used at the same time
B. irony, where the words used mean the opposite of what they say
C. foreshadowing, which hints at what is to come later in the story
D. overstatement, where something is exaggerated for effect

57. Kelsey wants to have the remains removed because
I. She is afraid of ghosts.
II. Robert wants to leave them there.
III. She respects Native cultures.
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III
58. If Kelsey had chosen to be deferential (paragraph 6) to her husband, what would she have likely told him regarding his plans?
A. “Good idea.”
B. “Don’t be silly.”
C. “I’ll leave you.”
D. “I’m not sure.”

59. Which adjective best describes Kelsey and Robert’s marriage?
A. busy
B. appalling
C. strained
D. good-natured
60. What about Robert seems to keep him from wanting to move the gravesite?
A. He is controlling.
B. He fears the Indians.
C. He cares about cultural history.
D. He is afraid of ghosts.

61.  In paragraph 7, the author writes, “She tried to cajole Robert away from the direction he was heading.”Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the above sentence while keeping its original meaning as used in the story?
A. She tried to compromise with Robert to go the other direction.
B. She tried to force Robert to change directions.
C. She tried to entice Robert away from the direction he was heading.
D. She tried to threaten Robert about the direction he was heading.

62. As used at the end of the story, which is the best antonym for desecrate?
A. honor
B. excavate
C. defile
D. criticizen

Passage IV

I was 16 when my father unequivocally decided he would send me to wilderness camp for several months. He had threatened to do it many times before, but my mother had always managed to prevent him from actually packing me up and shipping me off. This time he was dead set on it. My latest transgression was viewed as the last straw. In a fit of unbridled rage, I had shoved my math teacher down a flight of steps at school. He broke his arm in two places and severely dislocated his shoulder. The man hadn’t done a thing to me. I am hard-pressed to remember why I was so irritated at him. Anyway, Mr. Ford, my math teacher, had agreed not to press charges as favor to my dad. He was a friend of my dad’s from way back. Mr. Ford knew what was at stake. We all did. Dad was in the middle of a tight race for sheriff in our town. This latest “Danny Thing,” as my reckless behavior was now called, had all my dad’s closest advisors talking. “John, he’s your son and he’s a kid, but he is dragging you down,” I heard Jake Hutch tell my dad through his closed office door the night after I pushed Mr. Ford. “If it appears you can’t set the course for enforcement in your own home, how can you set the course for this town?” So, off to Pisgah National Forest I went. I knew in my heart that “Wilderness Camp” was surely just a euphemism for “Torture Center.” I imagined hours of untold abuse at the hands of some lumberjack-sized drill sergeant. I resolved not to be broken and to emerge from the program unchanged. I was who I was. Nearly every day for six months, a small group of other troubled teens and I lugged our 30-pound backpacks on a trek that covered about 10 miles. We hiked in a rugged wilderness that seemed untouched by civilization. The grandeur of the sky, rock, and wilderness made me reverent. Our counselors were firm but kind, not the ogres I had imagined. We learned how to make a fire without matches and create a shelter with twigs, branches, and grass. We learned which plants were safe to eat out in the wild. Late into the night, we talked about our fears and hopes. We were devoid of radios, televisions, and cell phones. I felt myself change. I was calm and often reflective. My old, impulsive self was gone. One morning, six months later, my dad came to pick me up. I ran to hug him and saw relief and love in his eyes.
“So what’s it like being sheriff?” I asked on the ride home. “I lost the race, Danny,” he said. “I’m sorry, Dad.” I knew my behavior probably had a lot to do with his defeat. Dad squeezed my shoulder and brought me close. “As long as I don’t ever lose you, I’m okay.”

63.  Which best describes the double meaning of the title?
A. Danny goes to wilderness camp; it is in a national forest.
B. Danny is out of control; he is sent into the wilderness.
C. Danny changes at wilderness camp; his father loses a tight race for sheriff.
D. Danny hikes in the rugged wilderness; he becomes respectful of nature and others.

64. “I was 16 when my father unequivocally decided he would send me to wilderness camp for several months.”
Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the above sentence (from paragraph 1) while keeping its original meaning as used in the story?
A. I was 16 when my father angrily decided he would send me to wilderness camp for several months.
B. I was 16 when, over the course of several months, my father decided he would send me to wilderness camp.
C. I was 16 when my father tentatively decided he would send me to wilderness camp for several months.
D. I was 16 when my father decided without question he would send me to wilderness camp for several months.

65.  What does the idiomatic
expression, “the last straw,”
(in paragraph 2) suggest?
A. the biggest problem of all
B. the worst thing someone could have done
C. the last in a line of unacceptable occurrences
D. the deed someone wishes he or she could take back
66.  As used in paragraph 2, which is the best antonym for unbridled?
A. amusing
B. peaceful
C. restrained
D. understandable
E. scarce

67. What lesson did Danny seem to learn in this passage?
A. Fight fire with fire.
B. Faith will move mountains.
C. Nature exceeds nurture.
D. A reed before the wind lives on, while mighty oaks do fall.
68. What is a euphemism (paragraph 6)?
A. a code word
B. a nickname
C. a different name
D. a less offensive term
E. a meaningless title

69. What kind of character is Jake Hutch in this passage?
A. round, meaning he/she is fully developed
B. protagonist, meaning he/she is the main character
C. antihero, meaning he/she lacks heroic traits
D. flat, characterized by having only enough traits to fulfill his/her function in the passage
70. “The grandeur of the sky, rock, and wilderness made me reverent.”
Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the above sentence (from paragraph 7) while keeping its original meaning as used in the story?
A. I was awed by the majesty of the sky, rock, and wilderness.
B. I felt small in comparison to the sheer size of the sky, rock, and wilderness.
C. The power of the sky, rock, and wilderness made me regret my past behavior.
D. The inherent danger of the sky, rock, and wilderness made me nervous.

71.  What is evident by the end of the passage?
I. how much Danny has changed
II. how much John loves his son
III. that John has given up running for office
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

72.  If the counselors at the wilderness camp had been ogres (paragraph 8), how might have they behaved?
A. by giving teenagers water only when they were thirsty
B. by making the teenagers figure out how to build a fort in the rain
C. by refusing to treat the teenagers’ wounds when they got injured
D. by encouraging the teens to socialize with one another even if they didn’t want to

Direction (Q. 73-80) : In each of the questions below are given four statements following by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (a) : if only Conclusion I follows.
Give answer (b) : if only Conclusion II follows.
Give answer (c) : if either Conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (d) : if neither Conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (e) : if both Conclusion I or II follows.

73. Statements : Some pins are magnets. Some magnets are scales. Some scales are trucks. All trucks are buses.
Conclusion : I. Some trucks are pins.
II. No truck is pin.
74. Statements : All jungles are trees. All trees are roads. All roads are houses. All houses are buildings.
Conclusion : I. All trees are houses.
II. Some buildings are roads.
75. Statements : All tablets are packets. No packet is bag. Some bags are toys. All toys are puppets.
Conclusion : I. Some puppets are tablets.
II. Some puppets are bags.
76.. Statements : Some desks are tables. Some tables are chairs. Some chairs are benches. Some benches are cots.
Conclusion : I. Some chairs are desks.
II. Some cots are tables.
77.. Statements : All bangles are rings. All rings are bracelets Some bracelets are jewels. Some jewels are stones.
Conclusion : I. Some stones are bangles.
II. Some jewels are rings.
78. Statements : All trousers are pants. Some pants are shirts. All shirts are buttons. Some buttons are threads.
Conclusion : I. Some threads are pants.
II. Some buttons are trousers.

1. b 2. d 3. b  4. d 5. c 6. c 7. e  8. a  9. c 10. b 11.a 12. a 13. c 14.  c 15. c 16. a 17. c  18. d 19. d 20. c 21. d 22. d  23. b 24. d
25. c 26. c 27.c  28.d  29. c 30. b 31.a 32.a 33. a 34. b 35.b  36.c  37. d  38.b 39. d 40.b 41. a 42. c 43.b  44.c  45. d 46.  d 47.a
48.d  49. b 50. b 51. d  52. A  53.b 54. a 55. b  56. a  57. A  58. A 59.c  60. C 61. C 62. A  63. b  64. d 65. C  66. C  67. c  68. D
69. d 70.a  71. B 72. c 73. c 74. E 75. B 76. D 77. D 78. D

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Monday, June 27, 2011

CSAT-2011 Paper II Analysis

Paper II was broadly inline with the sample questions released by UPSC – No surprise element. If at all it was, it was a pleasant surprise. Paper II had 80 questions. The paper had NO ‘SECTIONS’. The questions from any of the seven test areas, as mentioned by UPSC in its syllabus, were not placed in any specific sequence. Each of the 80 questions carried equal marks of 2.5. There were 72 questions for which 0.833 marks was deducted for any wrong answer marked. The remaining 8 questions (on Decision Making & Problem Solving) did not carry any negative marking. Out of these 80 questions, there were 36 questions, which were based on passage – Comprehension (27 Qs from 8 passages) and English Langauge Comprehension Skills (9 Qs from 3 passages). Students, with non-vernacular background, found that the difficulty level of the paper was manageable. Students who read and understand English will be able to answer most of the questions. The remaining 44 questions were from different topics like Data Interpretation(Pie Charts), Numbers, Equations, Percentages, Time & Distance, Geometry & Mensuration, Counting Techniques, Counting Triangles, Number Series, Blood relations, Venn Diagrams, Situation Analysis etc. In order to answer these questions, good conceptual, mathematical and reasoning skills are required. Overall, the difficulty level of the paper was average. Most of the well prepared students did not have any problem in solving the paper. The difficulty level of the paper was much lower when compared with other aptitude exams like CAT. UPSC has not specified minimum marks for Paper I and II. There is no cutoff declared. UPSC may consider the grand total of the two papers for the cutoff. It is estimated that 75-80 marks in this paper will be a good score(By attempting around 45 questions -(30 easy + 15 medium), with 80% accuracy, a net score of 75-80 marks is obtainable).

The table below gives the broad distribution of the number of questions area-wise.

Monday, June 13, 2011

UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper – II

UPSC Civils Preliminary General Studies Paper II 2011 Solutions
(Exam Held On : 12-06-2011)

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
3. You have to enter your Roll number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers:
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will
be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.


Directions for the following 4 (four) items :

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.


A country under foreign domination seeks escape from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great though we have come down in the world in other respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on starvation and misery. Many western writers have encouraged that notion that Indians are other-worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly, unless they become revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not meant for them. So also subject peoples.
As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each other, there is an equilibrium and stability. When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the mind and spirit.
1.   The passage mentions that “this world is evidently not meant for them”. It refers to people who    (b)
1.   seek freedom from foreign domination.
2.   live in starvation and misery.
3.   become revolutionaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 only
(c)  2 and 3                  (d)  3 only
2.   Consider the following assumptions :    (a)
1.   A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit.
2.   Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit.
3.   Subject peoples may become other-worldly.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a)  1 and 2
(b)  2 only
(c)  2 and 3
(d)  3 only
3.   The passage thematically centres on    (a)
(a)  the state of mind of oppressed people
(b)  starvation and misery
(c)  the growth of civilization
(d)  body, mind and spirit of people in  general
4.       According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused        (c)
(a)  by the impact of foreign domination.
(b)  by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation in visions of past greatness.
(c)  due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.
(d)  due to one’s inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly.

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given below the figure.
During a party, a person was exposed to contaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person’s disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.

5.   Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection ?    (a)
(a)  A only    (b)  B only
(c)  B and C
(d)  No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase
6.   Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection ?    (b)
(a)  A                            (b)  B
(c)  C                            (d)  D
7.      Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief ?    (c)
(a)  C    (b)  D
(c)  E
(d)  The curve does not indicate the treatment
8.       There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C ?    (a)
(a)  24                          (b)  12
(c)  10                          (d)  8
9.       A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date is as follows : Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being Rs. 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days ?        (b)
(a)  Rs. 4950                    (b)  Rs. 4250
(c)  Rs. 3600                    (d)  Rs. 650
10.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :

In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other, S is the direction of a beam of light falling on the mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be
(a)  Perpendicular to the direction S.    (c)
(b)  At 45° to the direction S.
(c)  Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
(d)  At 60° to the direction S.
11.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :        (a)

What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour ?
(a)  3                            (b)  4
(c)  5                            (d)  6
12.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :

A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square ?        (d)
(a)  10    (b)  11
(c)  15
(d)  Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
Read each of the following two passages and answer the items thai follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the State. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption.
The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver.
This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, ‘who need support and help. Hence we need a Government that, when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, plays an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food.
13.     According to the passage :    (a)
1.   The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.
2.   Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government.
3.   The Government should engage in maximum interference in market processes.
4.   There is a need to change the size of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a)  1 and 2 only    (b)  2 and 3 only
(c)  1 and 4 only    (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
14.     According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focussing on    (d)
(a)  Meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country.
(b)  Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector.
(c)  Controlling the distribution of manufactured goods.
(d)  Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society,
15.     What          constitutes      an enabling  Government ?
1.   A large bureaucracy.
2.   Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives.
3.   Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise.
4.   Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.
5.   Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :            (c)
(a)  1, 2 and 3 only    (b)  4 and 5 only
(c)  3, 4 and 5 only    (d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
16.     Why is the State unable to deliver “all that is needed” ?
1.   It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.    (d)
2.   It does not promote inclusive growth.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a)  1 only    (b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2    (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
17.     What is the essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage ?    (d)
(a)  The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be remembered.
(b)  The Government needs to make available more schools and health services.
(c)  The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society.
(d)  There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth.

The concept of ‘creative society’ refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilised and demand their rights. The upsurge of the peasants and tribals, the movements for regional autonomy and self-determination, the environmental movements, and the women’s movements in the developing -eountries are signs of emergence of creative society in contemporary times. The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary from country to country and place to place within a country. But the very presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country.
18.     What does the author imply by “creative society” ?
1.   A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seek incentive.
2.   A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm.
3.   A society where a large number of contradictions are recognised.
4.   A society where the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of their human rights and upliftment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :        (c)
(a)  1, 2 and 3              (b)  4 only
(c)  3 and 4                  (d)  2 and 4
19.     What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements ?
1.   Aggressiveness and being incendiary.
2.   Instigation by external forces.
3.   Quest for social equality and individual freedom.
4.   Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :        (c)
(a)  1 and 3 only          (b)  2 and 4 only
(c)  3 and 4 only          (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
20.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (c)
1.   To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements.
2.   To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
21.     Consider the following three statements :
1.   Only students can participate in the race.
2.   Some participants in the race are girls.
3.   All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ?    (c)
(a)  All participants in the race are invited for coaching.
(b)  All students are invited for coaching.
(c)  All participants in the race are students.
(d)  None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Directions for the following 2 (two) items :
Each of the following two items consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below each set of statements :
22.     Examine the following statements :    (a)
1.   All animals are carnivorous.
2.   Some animals are not carnivorous.
3.   Animals are not carnivorous.
4.   Some animals are carnivorous.
Codes :
(a)  1 and 3                  (b)  1 and 2
(c)  2 and 3                  (d)  3 and 4
23.     Examine the following statements :    (c)
1.   All trains are run by diesel engine.
2.   Some trains are run by diesel engine.
3.   No train is run by diesel engine.
4.   Some trains are not run by diesel engine.
Codes :
(a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 and 3
(c)  1 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
24.     Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries. Which one of them indicates the declining population ?        (c)

(a)  A                            (b)  B
(c)  C                            (d)  D
25. The following figure has four curves namely A, B, C and D. Study the figure and answer the item that follows.        (d)

Which curve indicates the exponential growth ?
(a)  A                            (b)  B
(c)  C                            (d)  D

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
The following pie charts show the break-up of disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns, Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the disease categories as percentage of the total number of patients. Based on these, answer the two items that follow the charts.
                                                   Distribution of diseases in Town – A

                                                          Distribution of diseases in Town – B

26.     Which of the two towns has a higher number of persons with Diabetes ?        (d)
(a)  Town A
(b)  Town B
(c)  Same in Town A and Town B
(d)  No inference can be drawn
27.     What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs ?    (b)
(a)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A.
(b)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B.
(c)  There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B.
(d)  No inference can be drawn.
28.     Consider the following Velocity — Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks.

With reference to the above graph, which one of the following statements is not correct ?    (d)
(a)  Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.
(b)  Train B is faster than Train A at all times.
(c)  Both trains have the same velocity at time t0.
(d)  Both trains travel the same distance in time t0 units.

Directions for the following 5 (five) items :
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Now India’s children have a right-to receive at least eight years of education, the gnawing question is whether it will remain on paper or become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary – a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child’s right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. If a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India’s history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is “symptomatic of a deeper turmoil” in society which is compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.
29.    With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (d)

1.   When children are denied education, adult society does not act on behalf of them.
2.   Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
30.     According to the passage, what could be the traditional obstacles to the education of girls?    (b)
1.   Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children.
2.   The traditional way of thinking about girls’ role in society.
3.   The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
4.   Improper system of education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a)  1 and 2 only          (b)  2, 3 and 4 only
(c)  1, 3 and 4 only      (d)  1, 2, 3 and 4
31.     On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements :        (d)
1.   Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right.
2.   For realising the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
32.     Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage ?    (d)
(a)  India has declared that education is compulsory for its children.
(b)  Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education.
(c)  The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.
(d)  The system of education should address the issue of Right to Education.
33.     Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage ?    (d)
(a)  The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.
(b)  Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education.
(c)  The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive.
(d)  There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood.

Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.
34.     How is D related to E ?        (a)
(a)  Husband                (b)  Son
(c)  Father                   (d)  Wife
35.     Who are the females in the group ?    (c)
(a)  C and E                  (b)  C and D
(c)  E and A                  (d)  D and E
36.     Whose wife is the teacher ?    (d)
(a)  C                            (b)  D
(c)  A                            (d)  B
Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be introduced, 2878 persons took part of which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the proposal. 196 females were undecided.    (b)
37.     How many females voted for the proposal ?
(a)  430                        (b)  600
(c)  624                        (d)  640
38. How many males were undecided ?    (a)
(a)  31                          (b)  227
(c)  426                        (d)  581
39.     How many females were not in favour of the proposal ?
(a)  430                        (b)  496    (a)
(c)  586                        (d)  1226
40.     In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z ?    (c)
(a)  6                            (b)  7
(c)  8                            (d)  9
Directions for the following 6 (six) items :
Read each of the following two passages and answer- the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate regulation, spiritual fulfilment and aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example, potable fresh water can be provided by desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost.
The rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the Earth’s ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of some of the goods and services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel. These modifications have contributed substantially to human well being and economic development. The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been harmed by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For example, efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding and support biodiversity.
41.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements. Expanding human population has an adverse effect on :        (c)
1.   Spiritual fulfilment
2.   Aesthetic enjoyment
3.   Potable fresh water
4.   Production of food and fibre
5.   Biodiversity
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a)  1, 2 and 3 only    (b)  2, 4 and 5 only
(c)  3 and 5 only    (d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
42. The passage mentions that “some people have actually been harmed by these changes”. What does it imply ?        (a)
1.   The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people:
2.   Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre.
3. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications in the Earth’s ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)  1 only
(b)  2
(c)  1 and 3
(d)  None of the statements given above
43.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (b)
1.   It is imperative to modify the Earth’s ecosystems for the well being of mankind.
2.   Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
A moral act must be our own act; must spring from our own will. If we act mechanically, there is no moral content in our act. Such action would be moral, if we think it proper to act like a machine and do so. For, in doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear in mind the distinction between acting mechanically and acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the king’s moral act. But if the messenger were to carry out the king’s order considering it to be his duty, his action would be a moral one. How can a man understand morality who does not use his own intelligence and power of thought, but lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current ? Sometimes a man defies convention and acts on his own with a view to absolute good.
44.     Which of the following statements best describe/describes the thought of the writer ?    (d)
1.   A moral act calls for using our discretion.
2.   Man should react to a situation immediately.
3.   Man must do his duty.
4.   Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 3
(c)  2 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
45.     Which of the following statements is the nearest definition of moral action, according to the writer ?
(a)  It is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors.        (b)
(b)  It is an action based on our sense of discretion.
(c)  It is a clever action based on the clarity of purpose.
(d)  It is a religious action based on understanding.
46. The passage contains a statement “lets himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current.” Among the following statements, which is/are nearest in meaning to this ?        (b)
1.   A person does not use his own reason.
2.   He is susceptible to influence/pressure.
3.   He cannot withstand difficulties/ challenges.
4.   He is like a log of wood.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 2
(c)  2 and 3                  (d)  1 and 4
47.     Consider the following distance – time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B and C running side by side for a 30 km race.

With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements :        (b)
1.   The race was won by A.
2.   B was ahead mark of A up to 25 km
3.   C ran very slowly from the beginning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  1 and 2 only
(c)  2 and 3 only          (d)  1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following figures :    (c)

What is the missing number ?
(a)  7                            (b)  8
(c)  9                            (d)  10
49.     Study the following figure :    (c)
A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the lines. How many different routes can he adopt ?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a)  4                            (b)  5
(c)  6                            (d)  7
50.     Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows :        (c)

What is the total number of triangles in the above grid ?
(a)  27                          (b)  26
(c)  23                          (d)  22
51.     A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively    (d)
(a)  15 and 35              (b)  35 and 15
(c)  30 and 20              (d)  25 and 25
52.     Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps ?
(a)  25 m 20 cm           (b)  50 m 40 cm    (a)
(c)  75 m 60 cm           (d)  100 m 80 cm
53.     If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour ?        (b)
(a)  8 : 5                       (b)  5 : 8
(c)  4 : 5                       (d)  1 : 2
54. There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30O student play football and 10% students play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football ?        (b)
(a)  25                          (b)  20
(c)  18                          (d)  15
55.     A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. The water of this tank will last for        (b)
(a)  2 days                    (b)  3 days
(c)  4 days                    (d)  5 days
Directions for the following 4 (four) items :
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus. In the absence of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species.
A study at the University of Washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor, occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
56.     What is the crux of the passage ?    (c)
(a)  Sea star has a preferred prey.
(b)  A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species.
(c)  Keystone species ensures species diversity.
(d)  Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America.
57.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (a)
1.   Mussels are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems.
2.   The survival of sea stars if generally determined by the abundance of mussels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
58.     Which of the following is/are implied by the passage ?        (d)
1.   Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.
2.   Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.
3.   Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)  1 and 2                  (b)  2 only
(c)  1 and 3                  (d)  3 only
59.     Consider the following assumptions :    (a)
1.   The food chains/food web in an ecosystem are influenced by keystone species.
2.   The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.
3.   If the keystone species is completely removed from an .ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  2 and 3 only
(c)  1 and 3 only          (d)  1, 2 and 3
60.     Consider the following argument :    (b)
“In order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians are poets. No college graduate is poor.”
Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument?
(a)  Some Mathematicians are not teachers.
(b)  Some   teachers are not Mathematicians.
(c)  Teachers are not poor,
(d)  Poets are not teachers.
61.     A student on her first 3 tests received an average score of N points. If shell exceeds her previous average score by 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests ?    (d)
(a)  N + 20                    (b)  N + 10
(c)  N + 4                      (d)  N + 5
62.     In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two-sevenths of the males are married, what fraction of the females is single ?        (d)
(a)  2/7                        (b)  1/3
(c)  3/7                        (d)  2/3
63.     The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A’s being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D’s house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C’s house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ?        (c)
(a)  C and D live on the same street.
(b)  C’s house faces south.
(c)  The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart.
(d)  None of the above
Directions for the following 9 (nine) items :
The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.
He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry, and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt before. He, however, soon fell asleep, being much tired with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had.
64.     When the night fell, he slept    (b)
(a)  in the open field
(b)  under a pile of dry grass
(c)  in a farmer’s cottage
(d)  under a tree
65.     He soon fell asleep because    (a)
(a)  he was exhausted
(b)  he was all alone
(c)  he had not slept for days
(d)  he was very frightened
66.     With reference to the passage, consider the following statements :        (a)
1.   He was walking through the countryside.
2.   The cottagers and farmers gave him enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then, just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred to me. Had I packed my toothbrush ? I don’t know how it is, but I never do know whether I’ve packed my toothbrush.
My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I’m travelling, and makes my life a misery. I dream that I haven’t packed it, and wake up in a cold perspiration, and get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then I repack and forget it, and have to rush upstairs for it at the last moment and carry it to the railway station, wrapped up in my pocket-handkerchief.
67.     When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was        (a)
(a)  unpleasant            (b)  sad
(c)  fantastic                (d)  amusing
68.     What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling ?        (b)
(a)  Going to railway station
(b)  Forgetting the toothbrush
(c)  Packing his bag
(d)  Bad dreams
69.     His toothbrush is finally        (c)
(a)  in his bag
(b)  in his bed
(c)  in his handkerchief
(d)  lost

In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I’ve only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.
70.     Female polar bears give birth during    (d)
(a)  spring                    (b)  summer
(c)  autumn                 (d)  winter
71.     Mother bear        (b)
(a)  takes sides over cubs
(b)  lets the cubs fend for themselves
(c)  feeds only their favourites
(d)  sees that all cubs get an equal share
72. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :    (d)
1.   Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability of prey.
2.   Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid ?
(a)  1 only                    (b)  2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2          (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
Given below are eight items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find- most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.
Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.
73.     You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about the meeting is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him/her. You would    (a)
(a)  send a written reply explaining the fact.
(b)  seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation.
(c)  admit your fault to save the situation.
(d)  put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing.
74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. You would    (b)
(a)  sell the property at a cheap price to him.
(b)  go to the police for necessary action.
(c)  ask for help from your neighbours.
(d)  negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.
75.     You have to accomplish a very important task for your Headquarters within the next two days. Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office insists that you complete the task. You would    (c)
(a)  ask for an extension of deadline.
(b)  inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time.
(c)  suggest alternate person to Headquarters who may do the needful.
(d)  stay away till you recover.
76.     You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Despite your best possible effort, people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You would    (a)
(a)  let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter.
(b)  ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place.
(c)  not pay attention to allegations.
(d)  stop undertaking any initiative till the matter is resolved.
77.     You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the lowest price was approximately three times more than the approved rate of the Government. You would        (b)
(a)  reject the proposal and call for a fresh price.
(b)  accept the lowest price.
(c)  refer the matter to the Government and wait.
(d)  threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence.
78.     You are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the Gram Pradhan and also a poor villager. You are being pressurized by the Gram Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would        (c)
(a)  initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either.
(b)  arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area.
(c)  ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency,
(d)  arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area.
79.     You have taken up a project to create night-shelters for homeless people during the winter season. Within a week of establishing the shelters, you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You would        (a)
(a)  ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station.
(b)  assure residents of an enquiry into the matter.
(c)  ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made.
(d)  continue with the project and ignore their complaint.
80. You, as an administrative authority, have been approached, by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressures. You would
(a)  call the in-laws for an explanation.    (d)
(b)  counsel the lady to adjust, given such a circumstance.
(c)  take action after her parents approach you.
(d)  ask her to lodge a complaint with the police.